kook_10 1,705 Report post Posted January 9, 2010 (edited) Occasionally people here bring up post-lockout parity, but to me it was some sort of a vague concept. So, in a bout of spreadsheet nerddom this afternoon I tried to figure out how to quantify the concept. I'm interested to hear how anybody else would put some numbers to the concept, but I thought the best way to represent parity was to compare the goals for/goals against ratios of the teams in the league. [goals drive the wins/losses and there are no ties] For instance if there isn't any parity, then the best team in the league would have 300 goals for and 150 goals against for a ratio of 2.0 and the worst team may be the opposite at 150GF/300GA for a ratio of 0.5. I used standard deviation as a measure of variability for the GF/GA ratios of all the teams for the last 30 years. The lower the standard deviation, the lower the spread in GF/GA ratios amongst the teams (PARITY). Here is what I got: 07-08 and 08-09 had measurably more parity than in the past, but for this year and 05-06 and 06-07 it doesn't look any different. Edited January 9, 2010 by kook_10 Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Crashnburnluder 385 Report post Posted January 9, 2010 Nobody else has posted on this and I must give you credit for doing the math for it.... It seems like the 10 years before the lockout had the most consistency. It wasnt the lowest but was deffinitly the most consistent. We will see if this seasons drops at all of if it stays as high as it is.... Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
egroen 384 Report post Posted March 28, 2011 (edited) Missed this. I'd really be interested in seeing this go back... Well, as far back as you are willing to go. For instance, the 70s had very little parity, the least probably since WWII. Edited March 28, 2011 by egroen Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
